It’s so counter-intuitive my head is going to explode.
Here’s the paradox for the uninitiated:If I say, “I have 2 kids, at least one of which is a girl.” What is the probability that my other kid is a girl? The answer is 33.33%.
>*Intuitively, most of us would think the answer is 50%. But it isn’t. I implore you to read more about the problem.*
Then, if I say, “I have 2 kids, at least one of which is a girl, whose name is Julie.” What is the probability that my other kid is a girl? The answer is 50%.
>*The bewildering thing is the elephant in the room. Obviously. How does giving her a name change the probability?*
>
>*Apparently, if I said, “I have 2 kids, at least one of which is a girl, whose name is …” The probability that the other kid is a girl* ***IS STILL 33.33%.*** *Until the name is uttered, the probability remains 33.33%. Mind-boggling.*
And now, if I say, “I have 2 kids, at least one of which is a girl, who was born on Tuesday.” What is the probability that my other kid is a girl? The answer is 13/27.
>*I give up.*
Can someone explain this brain-melting paradox to me, please?
In: 4
Here are all the possible combinations of Boy and Girl for your two children:
* BB
* BG
* GB
* GG
Now we know that at least 1 is a girl, so let’s narrow that down to only combinations with at least one girl:
* BG
* GG
* GB
Out of those 3 combinations, 2 end up with the other child being a boy, and 1 with the other child being a girl. So there’s a 1/3 possibility, or 33.3…% that the other child is a girl.
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