Ok, obviously the chances of having a single child of a given gender are roughly 50/50. However, if you have three children and the first two are F, does it become statically more likely to produce a male with the third child? I understand the events are independent, so, it shouldn’t, however, I am curious how set theory applies in this case. The same could be said about flipping a coin, two heads in a row…the third flip should be 50/50, but does set theory apply in this case?
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> does it become statically more likely to produce a male with the third child?
No. The odds are still 50:50. You’re equally likely to have a boy or a girl. This is the gambler’s fallacy, thinking that the universe needs to “self-correct” to maintain the ratio. It doesn’t. It will naturally over hundreds and thousand of babies converge upon 50:50 (or whatever the true average is because iirc I think it’s slightly biased towards boys), but if there happen to be more girls than boys or more boys than girls then the universe won’t try to birth more of the minority.
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