Ok, obviously the chances of having a single child of a given gender are roughly 50/50. However, if you have three children and the first two are F, does it become statically more likely to produce a male with the third child? I understand the events are independent, so, it shouldn’t, however, I am curious how set theory applies in this case. The same could be said about flipping a coin, two heads in a row…the third flip should be 50/50, but does set theory apply in this case?
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Two heads previously doesn’t affect flipping the coin a 3rd time. Outcome will still be 50% still.
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