eli5: can someone explain the phrase is “I am become death” the grammar doesn’t make any sense?

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Have always wondered about this. This is such an enormously famous quote although the exact choice of words has always perplexed me. Initially figured it is an artifact of translation, but then, wouldn’t you translate it into the new language in a way that is grammatical? Or maybe there is some intention behind this weird phrasing that is just lost on me? I’m not a linguist so eli5

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Anonymous 0 Comments

The top answer is the right one, but I’ve always read it poetically. Like an ethereal force describing itself. It has become Death, yet it was always meant to be Death, and has been since the it’s creation, and it always knew, but didn’t know at all.

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