eli5: can someone explain the phrase is “I am become death” the grammar doesn’t make any sense?

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Have always wondered about this. This is such an enormously famous quote although the exact choice of words has always perplexed me. Initially figured it is an artifact of translation, but then, wouldn’t you translate it into the new language in a way that is grammatical? Or maybe there is some intention behind this weird phrasing that is just lost on me? I’m not a linguist so eli5

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Anonymous 0 Comments

“I am become death” was Oppenheimer’s personal translation of the text. It may not have the same meaning as intended by its authors. I always wondered if Oppenheimer took inspiration from Christians’ bad conjugation (e.g., “He is risen.”).

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