Have always wondered about this. This is such an enormously famous quote although the exact choice of words has always perplexed me. Initially figured it is an artifact of translation, but then, wouldn’t you translate it into the new language in a way that is grammatical? Or maybe there is some intention behind this weird phrasing that is just lost on me? I’m not a linguist so eli5
In: 1806
It’s not ungrammatical; it’s merely archaic.
The phrase “am become” as well as “are become” and “is become”—all occur in the King James bible:
Genesis 3:22: And the Lord God said, Behold, the man **is become** as one of us, to know good and evil….
Genesis 24:35: And the Lord hath blessed my master greatly; and he **is become** great….
Exodus 15:2: The Lord is my strength and song, and he **is become** my salvation….
Exodus 15:6: Thy right hand, O Lord, **is become** glorious in power….
Exodus 32:1: …we wot not what **is become** of him.
Psalm 69:8: I **am become** a stranger unto my brethren….
Psalm 79:4: We **are become** a reproach to our neighbours….
Psalm 118:14: The Lord is my strength and song, and **is become** my salvation.
Psalm 118:22: The stone which the builders refused **is become** the head stone of the corner.
Matthew 21:42: Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same **is become** the head of the corner….
1 Corinthians 13:1: Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I **am become** as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal.
[I’ll bet it occurs in Shakespeare also, but I don’t have an easy way to search all of Shakespeare’s works.]
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