large corporations have large number of shareholders. Then, does every shareholder enjoy voting rights? in case of election of board members? how does that really work?
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Yes, each shareholder can cast a vote per share owned. So somebody with 1 share or 10 shares has 1 or 10 votes, while a mutual fund with 1 million shares gets 1 million votes. Also, there are times when there are different classes of voting shares, eg. public shares might get one vote while the class held by founder and pre-IPO investors have 2 votes per share or some sort of setup to that effect — that’s how Mark Zuckerberg basically has veto power of Meta despite not owning 50% of shares.
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