Eli5 – How can someone be proven not guilty of murder in criminal court but still sued in civil court?
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I just don’t like the comments I’ve read thus far. Criminal courts establish facts that are “beyond a reasonable doubt,” which is the highest standard of proof. So if you’re guilty in a criminal court, you are established guilty under the highest standard of evidence. Civil suits use “preponderance of the evidence,” which simply means more likely than not (I.e. 51% or better). So if something is established in civil court, it’s merely under that standard. Someone can be found not guilty in criminal court where there is a “reasonable doubt,” but found liable in civil court where it’s more likely than not they are guilty. On the flip side if someone is guilty in criminal court they are automatically liable in civil court, as it’s already been proven beyond a reasonable doubt, which is a higher standard than preponderance of the evidence.
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