Unfortunately this isn’t really a question that can be ELI5ed. There’s no single law of social or historical development that applies across the world and across history and that explains inequality (or at least, not one that’s widely agreed on).
It’s possible to talk about how significant inequality first developed in societies, and I think there are similarities in this process around the world. But from there societies travel along many different paths.
At a global level there’s a big difference between “rich” countries and “poor” countries, which is another, complicated, story in itself.
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