eli5 how does the sum of infinite terms turns to be a finite value

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does this apply only for terms that are less than 1 eg 1 + 1/2 + 1/4…. or does this apply to all ap/gp. I remember studying this, but it’s been so long I remember only the gist.

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Anonymous 0 Comments

The easiest way you can visualize it is by imagining the distance between numbers as a rug. If someone asked you to stand on one side of the rug (1) and take a big step towards the middle of the rug (1 & 1/2) and then the next step would be half that distance (1 & 3/4) and then half that distance again, you would eventually reach the other end of the rug (2) if you had infinite steps but you would never go beyond the rug because even though there are infinite steps from one end of the rug to the other the total length of the rug is finite.

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