eli5 how does the sum of infinite terms turns to be a finite value

1.36K views

does this apply only for terms that are less than 1 eg 1 + 1/2 + 1/4…. or does this apply to all ap/gp. I remember studying this, but it’s been so long I remember only the gist.

In: 248

30 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

Since you mentioned studying this before, for geometric series (including the one you mentioned) it converges (or adds up to a finite number) if r is between -1 and 1. This is not true “only for terms that are less than 1”; the classic counterexample being the harmonic series (1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 …..). There are also infinite series that don’t go to infinity, but also don’t converge, like 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 …..

If your confusion is how adding infinitely many numbers doesn’t go to infinity, ala Zeno’s paradox, it basically comes down to the extra terms are so small they don’t grow the sum to infinity. Let’s consider the infinite series .3 + .03 + .003 + .0003 ….. It’s pretty clear this number will not rise above even .4. In fact, if you remember long division, this sum is just 1/3.

You are viewing 1 out of 30 answers, click here to view all answers.