eli5 how does the sum of infinite terms turns to be a finite value

1.36K views

does this apply only for terms that are less than 1 eg 1 + 1/2 + 1/4…. or does this apply to all ap/gp. I remember studying this, but it’s been so long I remember only the gist.

In: 248

30 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

Take a whole (1) and cut it in half (1/2 + 1/2). Take a half and cut it in half (1/2 + 1/4 + 1/4)… You can repeat this infinitely many times without ever exceeding the value of the original whole.

You are viewing 1 out of 30 answers, click here to view all answers.