Don’t tell Grant I’m seeing mathologer too – gives you the intuition for your question and takes it to the next level – https://youtu.be/-dhHrg-KbJ0
Btw – if you’ll indulge me – why is it legal to convert (1 + (pi * i) / (n * pi * i))^(n * pi * i) to (1 + (pi * i) / M)^M where M is a positive integer heading to infinity? I would have thought the i in there couldn’t be so easily substituted out.
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