As the title states, why would a person’s belligerent behavior, or their refusal to take a breathalyzer be admissible if they’ve been deemed unfit to drive due to an impairment?
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The general rule in criminal law is that if you voluntarily intoxicate yourself, you are responsible for whatever you do afterward. Otherwise, people who wanted to commit murder would just get really drunk first, and then argue it was an unexpected reaction to the alcohol, not a premeditated act.
It is possible for two things to be true at once: You voluntarily intoxicated yourself, so that you are responsible for later crimes, and you are unable to operate a vehicle safely.
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