eli5: Probability of 4 holes in one in golf

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I read in a paper that the chance of getting a hole in one are 12,500 to 1. The article continued that to get 4 holes in one is (1/125000) to the power of four.

Why does the chance decrease per attempt? The universe doesn’t know you’ve had one or two or three results already so why are increasing holes in one less likely?

I see that intuitively this might be the case, but I’m not fully convinced. Part of me believes that the chance of getting any number of holes in on should be 12,500 to 1.

In: 1

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Anonymous 0 Comments

Because it’s a series. You cannot get 2 holes in one without first getting a hole in one on the first hole. And can’t get 3 without first getting the first two. The dependency changes the odds. The odds of getting one on any given hole is the same, but the odds of doing it on the holes consecutively is the more difficult aspect.

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