eli5 What is Kant’s categorical imparative?

Question

I have to understand it for a debate in class about the death penalty, but I can’t wrap my head around it just right

In: 6

Answer 1

For Kant, the perpetrator suffers roughly the same amount as their victim(s). So if their crime instigated death, then death as a punishment would be morally correct (through this school of thought). Eye for an eye, basically. Murderers should be subject to the death penalty per his line of morals.