I understand it for the gist part that the cap the senators at like 435 but my questions really are what’s the purpose of them saying that it’s permanent it’s not constitutional so it could be changed why is no one ever tried to change that and why is it based off of the 1910 census but it’s permanent I don’t understand what the the benefit of the law would even be. but my question really lies in the strictness of the wording the relationship to the census.
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In Dan Bouk’s essay [Political Solutions to Imperfect Data](https://www.reddit.com/r/USCensus2020/comments/iy1qlg/political_solutions_to_imperfect_data/?utm_source=share&utm_medium=web2x&context=3) he tells us
>When the automatic apportionment became law in 1929, the main justification was that it would prevent Congress from ever failing to apportion itself again.
[Announce and Transmit: A Century of Congressional Apportionment. Dan Bouk Retweeted Beeck Center](https://www.reddit.com/r/USCensus2020/comments/kqesnb/announce_and_transmit_a_century_of_congressional/?utm_source=share&utm_medium=web2x&context=3)
https://datasociety.net/wp-content/uploads/2021/04/House-Arrest-Dan-Bouk.pdf
[Stuck At 435 Representatives? Why The U.S. House Hasn’t Grown With Census Counts](https://www.reddit.com/r/politics/comments/muo535/stuck_at_435_representatives_why_the_us_house/?utm_source=share&utm_medium=web2x&context=3)
[Let’s discuss the Reapportionment Act of 1929. Can and should it be updated by Congress? Can and should it be challenged via the courts?](https://www.reddit.com/r/PoliticalDiscussion/comments/9j3h4x/lets_discuss_the_reapportionment_act_of_1929_can/?utm_source=share&utm_medium=web2x&context=3)
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