I’m aware one of the main points of contention that caused the American revolution was the idea that taxation without representation was unjust, but why did the British prefer to fight wars than have its colonies represented in parliament?
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Most common Englishmen at the time had no representation either as a matter of fact. I can’t remember the numbers, but only 1/10 or less had any voting power.
I believe representation was tied to certain about of wealth or land ownership.
American colonialist actually had a higher rate of land ownership and if they were giving representation it would be at a far higher rate than mainland British had ever experienced.
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