eli5: Why did we go from calling sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) to sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
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I think it is just slightly more technically correct for what we want to talk about.
My understanding is that:
* A ‘disease’ is generally thought to be the collection of symptoms that someone suffers.
* An ‘infection’ is generally thought to be some pathogen/germ in/on your body.
They are linked, but not exactly the same.
* For instance, you can be infected, but not show symptoms yet.
* Or you can be infected, but only be a ‘carrier’ and never experience the disease itself, only spread the infection to others.
* (EDIT: and, while I think not the case for sexually transmitted problems, many diseases are not caused by infection.)
So if we talk about STDs, what if someone is infected but hasn’t got the disease yet, or are only a carrier? Should we say they are “STD free”? Technically that’s true, but it is misleading. If we say they “have an STD” well, that gives a better idea, but is technically false.
If we move the focus to infection, that might be more useful, and avoid risk of confusion there.
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