[ELI5] Why do bacteria have to lose their antibiotics resistance in order to become resistant to phages?

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At least that’s what I picked up from that one kurzgesagt video

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Anonymous 0 Comments

Bacteria have relatively short and efficient genetic code. You might have heard that like half your DNA is ‘non-coding’ DNA. That doesn’t mean it does nothing- it has functions like shielding your coding DNA from mutations, buffering sections of code that would otherwise form a kink on the strand, and serving as base stock for new mutations.

Bacteria genomes are much more oriented towards efficiency. They have way fewer genes than we do, and like 6-14% non-coding DNA. This means that typically, a beneficial mutation comes at the cost of a different beneficial gene. That penicillin resistance gene used to be the gene that let the bacteria digest fructose or whatever.

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