Eli5: why do woman get less of some mutation like color blindness?

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If one X chromosome is healthy and one is mutated, why does the healthy take control?

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Because colour blindness is an X-linked “RECESSIVE” disorder, you will need two of it to show that trait out. For women (XX) to get colorblind, they will need two unhealthy genes, but for men (XY), they have only one X-chromosome, so if it turns out that the X-chromosome that he got from his mother (For the men to be colorblind, his mother should be colorblind or a carrier of an unhealthy gene) is an unhealthy gene, he will instantly be colorblind.

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