Eli5 why is 0 AD onwards called “The year of our lord” when Jesus was born in 6BC – 4BC?

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Eli5 why is 0 AD onwards called “The year of our lord” when Jesus was born in 6BC – 4BC?

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They had to count backwards to a year where the Passover full moon fell on a Friday, then subtract 33.5 years to estimate his birthday. 30 years old when he started his ministry, and dying 3.5 years later.

Of course, this introduces a few problems. It indicates Jesus was born 6 months from March, which is around September.

Not to mention that Passover can fall on any day of the week; so, it’s possible to have two Sabbaths in one week, which casts doubt on the idea he died on Friday. The Mary’s prepared funeral spices between Sabbaths (Luke 23:56; Mark 16:1). The first Sabbath was called a high day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread (John 19:31; Leviticus 23:6-7). That would suggest they needed to count backwards to a year where the Passover full moon fell on a Wednesday then subtract 33.5 years.

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