Eli5 why is 0 AD onwards called “The year of our lord” when Jesus was born in 6BC – 4BC?

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Eli5 why is 0 AD onwards called “The year of our lord” when Jesus was born in 6BC – 4BC?

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Because the year system wasn’t made until 525 and not in common use for centuries after that. It’s the reckoning that Dionysius Exiguus thought was most accurate.

The world didn’t just stop using their existing dating systems because some guy was born.

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