ELI5; why is none of something pluralised? 2.86K viewsJanuary 3, 2024 Question100.55K May 25, 2019 0 Comments Just wondering if there is a reason why when you have none of something it is pluralised? For example, I have 1 apple becomes I have no/0 apples. In: Other 6 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted May 25, 2019 0 Comments It also depends how the question is aswered. Take this example. Teacher: do you have an apple? Kid 1: yes, I have an apple Teacher: do you have an apple? Kid 2: no, I have no apple. You are viewing 1 out of 6 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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