ELI5; why is none of something pluralised?

Question

Just wondering if there is a reason why when you have none of something it is pluralised?

For example, I have 1 apple becomes I have no/0 apples.

In: Other

Answer 1

This doesn’t help (are tangents allowed?) but it seems related –

*How many apples do you have?*

vs.

*How many apple do you have?*

I guess along the lines of what u/Pegajace was saying, the plural feels more general.