eli5: why is x⁰ = 1 instead of non-existent? 1.25K viewsJanuary 2, 2024 Question100.55K July 24, 2022 0 Comments It kinda doesn’t make sense. x¹= x x² = x*x x³= x*x*x etc… and even with negative numbers you’re still multiplying the number by itself like (x)-² = 1/x² = 1/(x*x) In: 1797 38 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted July 25, 2022 0 Comments Revise the law of indices which states, x^n / x^m = x^(n – m) So, x^0 = x^(1 – 1) = x^1 / x^1 which cancels to 1. Hence proved You are viewing 1 out of 38 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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