eli5: why is x⁰ = 1 instead of non-existent? 1.24K viewsJanuary 2, 2024 Question100.55K July 24, 2022 0 Comments It kinda doesn’t make sense. x¹= x x² = x*x x³= x*x*x etc… and even with negative numbers you’re still multiplying the number by itself like (x)-² = 1/x² = 1/(x*x) In: 1797 38 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted July 24, 2022 0 Comments We want rules like x^(n+m) = x^n * x^m. That’s all fine and good and easy for positive and negative n, m. To keep the rules, we can simply define x^0 =1 (for nonzero x). Think about x^0 = x/x. Which is 1 anyway. You are viewing 1 out of 38 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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