eli5: why is x⁰ = 1 instead of non-existent? 1.21K viewsJanuary 2, 2024 Question100.55K July 24, 2022 0 Comments It kinda doesn’t make sense. x¹= x x² = x*x x³= x*x*x etc… and even with negative numbers you’re still multiplying the number by itself like (x)-² = 1/x² = 1/(x*x) In: 1797 38 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted July 24, 2022 0 Comments Let’s look at powers of 2: 2¹=2 2²=4 2³=8 2⁴=16 2⁵=32 So to get the next power of 2, you just multiply by 2 (2×2=4, 4×2=8, 8×2=16, …). Which means to get the previous power, you need to *divide* by 2. So 2⁰ should be 2¹/2=2/2=1. You are viewing 1 out of 38 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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