Eli5:Would 1L of alchool of 10% concentration be equal to 0,25L of 40% concentration (leaving out the hydration occuring with the higher amount of liquid) in terms of drunkness?

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Eli5:Would 1L of alchool of 10% concentration be equal to 0,25L of 40% concentration (leaving out the hydration occuring with the higher amount of liquid) in terms of drunkness?

In: Biology

2 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

Essentially yes. However the diluted alcohol may take a bit more time to absorb. So while you get just as drunk from the 1L drink but it might take a few minutes longer to get that drunk.

Anonymous 0 Comments

If you have the same amount of alcohol in total… Theoretically. In reality it’s complicated and that depends on how you metabolize the different kinds of alcoholic beverages.

And whatever else you consume with it. I don’t know how much difference it makes, it might be insignificant.

I mean, if you consume the same amount of alcohol but less other fluid or food to dilute it it should hit harder. If you have less sugar in the fluid, same thing. It might not last as long though.

I’d guess it’s about the same.