I remember hearing about Steve Jobs being forced out of Apple, and the McDonalds brothers being forced out of McDonald’s. In both instances, the method of forcing was a buyout, but I don’t understand how this can be considered “forcing” if they consented to sell their shares. I feel that I am misunderstanding what happened, and just want to know how a shareholder can be forced to sell their stake in a company.
In: Economics
A majority shareholder can force a minority shareholder to sell their shares back to the company whether they consent to it or not
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