How can ancient civilizations be more advanced then others?

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During the dark age, Europe(?) Forgot how to write and read however, when rome was still a giant empire they could. How can that be?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

A quick google indicates the literacy in the Roman Empire was lower than Europe in the “dark age”. Rome about 10%, dark age Europe “under 20%”. So your premise isn’t even valid to begin with.

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