How can it be that all the human languages form logical grammar structures without anyone defining them from the first place? 713 viewsMay 3, 2024Other Question100.55K May 2, 2024 0 Comments It seems like grammar rules just form up on their own and no language is a “mess”, how can it be? In: Other 14 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted May 3, 2024 0 Comments Look into chomsky’s theory of universal grammar. That pretty much explains what you are asking You are viewing 1 out of 14 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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