I thought civil cases were designed for person vs person, contract disputes, divorce, etc. but in this case the it seems like the state is accusing someone of breaking the law but then not giving them the protections of A criminal trial (unanimous jury to be found guilty/liable). I am confused on how this works.
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Not all offenses made illegal in the US are criminal offenses, thus not all cases brought by the state against an individual or entity are criminal cases. And this goes for federal cases as well. For example, when the SEC brings firms to court for violating securities laws, that’s a civil offense, not a criminal one. Now, a single offense can incur both a civil and criminal penalty. For example, if the SEC finds in their investigation that criminal wrongdoing occurred as part of the violation of securities laws (e.g. fraud), they can then refer that evidence to the Department of Justice who then pursues criminal charges.
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