I’m never fully understood how currencies fluctuate beyond a layperson’s understanding of inflation/deflation, but still always assumed that $5 is $5 regardless of what currency it’s coming from or going into. But recent experiences have made me question that. M Not sure if this is the best way to ask my question because I think i actually have multiple closely related questions, so I’ll use examples instead:
My dad was recently in southeastern Europe and tried to pay for something at a store – they asked if he had dollars (or the local currency, i can’t remember) because it’s cheaper that way. If something costs $5, and I just exchanged the money into local currency, the merchant should be getting 5$ worth of currency regardless, no?
We went to Argentina in the spring, where it’s common for travelers to exchange dollars for pesos at non-government exchanges for a better rate. How does this happen? Are these exchanges getting dollars for less somehow, and thus able to offer better rates?
Again, I assume these questions are related, but what are the underlying concepts here? Thanks in advance!
EDIT: thanks everyone! I think between each of the responses I understand what I was missing!
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Okay, I think people are not understanding. What you’re asking is, if an item is $5 USD, shouldn’t then the price in local currency should be equivalent?
The cost of the price you pay for an item isn’t just the item itself, but transportation costs, local taxes, and tariffs that may be charged by multiple countries as the item is shipped across boarders.
Even in America, things sold in Alaska and Hawaii are more expensive because of the extra costs to get the item there
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