How come reducing the power of a function by 1 and multiplying the function by it gives us derivative of the function?

Question

Is it just a coincidence, or is it like an assumption and everything else is built around it?

In: 0

Answer 1

It’s a coincidence that happens to work for polynomials.

It wasn’t an assumption. It starts with the definition of a derivative. When you work out the math, that’s what the answer turns out to be.