How come the inverse of a derivative is an integral?

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I can’t conceptually grasp this the same why I can grasp addition/subtraction (the opposite of adding stuff is to take it away), but if the derivative of a function is the slope at any given point, then why would the area under the curve be the opposite of that?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

It is quite hard to describe in text without diagrams, but there is a good video series on this very question by 3blue1brown on youtube: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rfG8ce4nNh0

in essence, the question of an integral is to answer “which derivative do i need to get such and such expression”, and it just turns out that this answer is related to the area under the curve.

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