How did Colonizers become more “advanced” than the countries they colonized?

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In the colonization of NA, how was it that the Europeans already had muskets while the Native Americans were still using traditional weapons? I doubt it’s because theres a lack of resources?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

I live in a town that’s been colonized for about 150 years. Native Americans had previously lived here for tens of thousands of years with hardly any sign of their existence. You’d literally have to dig to find evidence of their existence.

In about 150 years we’ve significantly depleted the massive aquifers and completely changed the landscape here. Now there is an entire town built here with golf courses and a few remaining farms.

It’s really makes me question my definition of an “advanced civilization”

Anonymous 0 Comments

Well, think about WW2 which was all about colonialism. The UK and Japan were the advanced powers. Both were a collection of islands that were easily defendable, had a huge amount of coastlines, had plenty of farmland, and rivers that empty out to the sea.

Basically the huge amount of farmland meant people had excess capacity. The rivers gave people the ability to transport the cargo. The rivers emptying into the oceans allowed trade to happen. Once trade happens you basically have access to all the neat stuff in the world. Once that happens it’s simply a matter of adopting new technology that works. Japan hadn’t entered the Industrial Revolution until Commodore Perry went there with gunboats in 1853 and forced the Japanese to trade with America or else suffer the consequences. In less than 80 Japan adopted so much new technology that they became a world power, hence WW2.

Anonymous 0 Comments

It really can’t be understated how much of a developmental game changer it was having horses. As simple as it sounds they were the apex of communication, agriculture, and military technology for about 1000 years.