How did remote places in Asia and Africa not succumb to the same wave of disease and death that the Native Americans did?

Question

I’m not saying they weren’t affected at all, but something like 90% of Native Americans were wiped out while places like Japan and deep parts of the African interior didn’t suffer nearly as hard, even though they previously had basically no contact with Europe.

In: 1583

Answer 1

They basically did succumb. For instance, Europe through China had the Black Death about a hundred years before Columbus sailed and possibly as many as 50% of Europeans died from that. The year 1300’s version of that was also like their XBB.1.5 variant — it wasn’t the original bubonic plague strain and a lot of people already had some form of immunity.

The Americas then were hit with at least several hundred years of viral mutations all at once.