I never understood this. From what I was taught in history class, masses of native north & south americans died because of European diseases. And for each latin american country, of course there are large african and native descents, but from what I read each country has a massive part of Spanish heritage.
Nowadays, how many humans live between El Paso and Ushuaia? More than half a billion? Yet Spain is only a country of 40m people. How is this possible?
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Spain wasn’t a country of 40m people in colonial times just like the Americas didn’t have hundreds of millions of people in those times. The populations in both areas grew. The population may have grown faster in the Americas because before modern agriculture, you’d need a lot of space and farmland to support a big or rapidly-growing population. But also keep in mind, it was not just the Spanish that inhabited the Americas. There were surviving native people, African slaves, and other colonial countries that settled nearby areas and all these populations moved around and mixed together over the centuries.
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