Asking this for my 5-year-old niece. I, myself am 21 years old, don’t know how exactly they did it and am exceptionally bad at Humanities.
I don’t quite understand how the Britishers convinced/bewitched/overruled the rulers of a nation. From what I understand, they struck deals and what-not. Can you please explain a **bird’s eye view** of the entire situation so that I can explain it to my niece?
In: 203
Idk about other nations but India wasn’t a united nation then it was various different kingdoms that hated each other. They came in 1608 and asked permission from the king with the largest territory in India to set up a factory for trading there, and after many rounds of persuasion and English wine he agreed lol. Then as that company started making huge profits it started keeping an army and helping one kingdom vs another(usually other one was helped by French), then they defeated the French in various battles and were left as sole trading partner there, well not sole but the largest I guess. Then in 1757 they fought a war with the most powerful king of India at that time(Nawab of Bengal) and won the right to collect revenues from India. Boom! Now they can collect taxes from Indian people and use that taxes to further strengthen their army, also to buy cotton from India and send it to England for manufacturing and then importing it to India, for selling it in the Indian market and that’s how drain of wealth happened from India to Britian. And that’s how Britian became the most powerful power in the Indian region.
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