I read the Wikipedia article about Markowitz’ mean-variance model. But don’t quite get how this relates to the Capital Asset Pricing Model.
The way I understand it is that CAPM is an estimation of the future price of an asset. Ans based on that esitmation, the M-V model can “do its work”.
So CAPM is used as a mere input to the MV-model
Is my understanding correct or not at all?