Like if someone gave someone a weapon and they were knowingly going to use it for it’s intended purpose, you would technically be an accomplice? So why is this different.
Edit: Thank you everyone for your responses! I appreciate it!
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“Acts of war” are in the eye of the beholder and just because you don’t see it as one doesn’t mean Russia doesn’t see it as one. Look at the Cuban Missile crisis, a blockade of Cuba is considered an act of war, that doesn’t mean missiles were flying.
This is as old as time, look back to the founding of this country and it seeking funds and weapons from the French. Britain definitely interpreted this as a hostile act of war.
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