Like if someone gave someone a weapon and they were knowingly going to use it for it’s intended purpose, you would technically be an accomplice? So why is this different.
Edit: Thank you everyone for your responses! I appreciate it!
In: 9
It’s different because Russia doesn’t want to declare war on the US.
That’s the only distinction.
The Taliban did the same to Al Quaeda and the US definitely did consider material support an act of war, and retaliated in kind.
But they did so from a position of vast military strength. Russia will make the same accusations today about material support to their enemies, but they won’t act on it because they can’t afford to fight that fight.
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