How is the gambler’s fallacy not a logical paradox? A flipped coin coming up heads 25 times in a row has odds in the millions, but if you flip heads 24 times in a row, the 25th flip still has odds of exactly 0.5 heads. Isn’t there something logically weird about that?

Question

I know it’s true, it’s just something that seems hard to wrap my head around. How is this not a logical paradox?

In: Mathematics

Answer 1

Each turn you have a 50% chance of getting a heads or tails. Getting multiple heads in a row has an extremely low probability. But on any single turn, regardless of the pattern of heads or tails that came before it, the chance of getting either heads or tails remains at 50% each.