How it’s possible Mississippi and other states that Americans perceive as very poor have a higher GDP per capita than countries we perceive as rich like France

Question

US States by GDP per capita: [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_U.S._states_and_territories_by_GDP](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_U.S._states_and_territories_by_GDP)

Countries by GDP per capita: [https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GDP_(nominal)_per_capita](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_GDP_(nominal)_per_capita)

In: 322

Answer 1

[This](https://www.reddit.com/r/MapPorn/comments/11m6isp/median_household_income_in_uscanada_and_europe/jbhdggo/?context=3) might be the answer you’re looking for.

either way, GDP alone is far from sufficient to tell the whole story and bare in mind official GDP data are estimates and every country in the world has a informal/shadow economy that is not and cannot possibly be accurately counted by IMF, WB etc. and France’s informal economy is estimated (by QIES based in London) to be 13% of it’s official GDP, only 7% for Usa. Not a huge difference but still significant enough.