How much actual power did George III have compared to Charles III?

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My wife and I (Americans) are watching The Crown for the first time, and obviously I knew that the modern British monarch has no real power and everything is at the “advice” of the government, that she is quite literally taking orders from and getting her actions approved by the government and the PM

I also understand that Britain arrived at this arrangement of a monarch responsible to the people vs. an absolute ruler over time, over thousands of years.

My question, essentially, is, how recent or how gradual were those changes?

For example, the 13 Colonies addressed their grievances to George III. He personally made statements about losing or not losing the colonies, about welcoming them as a power after the war, etc. How much of the interaction between Colonial America and Great Britain was driven personally by George III vs. the government and Prime Minister of the time?

Today, Charles III acts entirely on essentially the orders of his government. No opposing nation would really address grievances to him personally, or expect him to respond personally. Was George III essentially in the same boat?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

Well, for starters, Charles III doesn’t actually “take orders” from Parliament or his Government. Rather, it is expected in modern times for the sovereign to be apolitical. All acts passed by Parliament require Royal Assent in order to become law, which effectively gives Charles veto power. It is just that he (and Elizabeth before him and George before her) never really exercises it.

That being said, George III had significantly more power than Charles does. There were several political and social developments during the 19th century, such as political parties and mass media, that led to the current system.