I just heard an ad on the radio for a prescription pill (don’t recall the name) to treat men with advanced prostate cancer. One of the warnings was that it may cause harm to an unborn child. How could that work?
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The laws that say they have to put the warning up there, or at least what they interpret as such, does not bother to differentiate between drugs that are advertised to female, men, kids, dogs, grandmothers, etc. It would just be too much to have to go through each possible symptom and check who can get it or not. So this warning is shown on any drug which have not been proven to not cause birth defects. It is even possible that a doctor prescribe this drug to females as it often have other uses then what they are advertising for. For example if this is a pain killer which does work well with prostate cancer that may also work well in other cases, for example pains associated with pregnancy. They just chose not to advertise this in the same advertisement.
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