If 100°C is equal to 212°F then why is 1°C not equal to (212/100) or 2.12°F but instead equal to 33.8°F? 788 viewsJanuary 3, 2024 Question100.55K May 5, 2022 0 Comments If 100°C is equal to 212°F then why is 1°C not equal to (212/100) or 2.12°F but instead equal to 33.8°F? In: 0 11 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted May 5, 2022 0 Comments Because steps between °F and °C is not the same : °C are design for freezing water at sea level at 0°C and boiling at 100°C. Farenheit is made up between random a cold day and a hot one for the 0-100, that’s why it’s so rubbich. You are viewing 1 out of 11 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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