If animals with the same genus but but different species breed produce infertile offsprings, how come modern humans have traces of Homo Neanderthal DNA

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Is Homo genus the exception of this? I have pretty much zero knowledge in biology but been curious about this for a while and can’t get it out of my head.

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Anonymous 0 Comments

Neanderthals are often classified as a subspecies of *Homo sapiens*. In this scheme they’re *Homo sapiens neanderthalensis* and we’re *Homo sapiens sapiens*. Although the truth of the matter is that ability to interbreed isn’t a clear-cut delineator of species; there are lots of exceptions to that general rule.

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