If someone does a crime but there was no law against it at that time, do they get caught if a law is set up for it in the future?

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So for exemple if someone got on with a minor at the past, or if someone was openly racist in the 50s, would they be jailed now if they were alive, or do laws apply to the time you commited the crime?

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Anonymous 0 Comments

That depends on how democratic the nation is. Democracies and republics have more power in the hands of citizens, who don’t want their government to abuse it. They tend to have constitutions which forbids this specifically, because it’s too easy a tool to abuse. No one complains at first when you come after the child molesters, then once people are used to the idea of retroactive laws you start abusing it on everyone else.

In nations where the democratic process or the constitution is weaker, or even inexistent, the law is whatever the leaders say it is, and that’s the end of that. those unhappy become undesirables, when they don’t just disappear.

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